Quote:
Originally Posted by W.J. Wilczek
There are no absolute rights. All rights are subject to law that defines their limitation. There is nothing in the course of human events, from the moment of life’s conception to the final disposition of one’s mortal remains and property after death, that is not governed by law. To say that one has a right to anything can only be validated by law.
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OK. How can a law violate somebodys' "Rights" when the
law validates the right? "All rights are subject to law that defines their limitation."
Doesn't it follow that there must be rights "out there" somewhere that can't be changed by the
Laws of Man or we wouldn't run into this problem time and time again?
I don't understand how you can have no rights but those given by law and rights that can't be changed by law? It seems a little "having it both ways" to me. It looks like if the courts don't like the new rule of law they can say YOU CAN"T CHANGE THIS its an unalienable right. On the other hand we can give rights by law to things unthought of before. Double standard?